Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 08:27
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
The Day the Earth Smiled: Earth, the Moon, and Saturn All in One Frame - The Daily Galaxy
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.